The final Gospel passage regarding divorce is Luke 16:18 —
“Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery, and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
Edwards points out that the original Greek in this passage requires that the actions translated as “divorces” and “marries” must occur simultaneously with the verb “adultery” — eliminating any possibility that Jesus is suggesting that the adultery occurs after marriage — it occurs at the same time as the divorce and remarriage — not later.[1]
“Divorces” and “marries” are participles in the Greek, and parallel participles ordinarily express simultaneous action.
Why is the remarriage “adultery”? Because in this case the divorce was in order to remarry — the temptation to be with another woman led to the break up of the first marriage, making the second marriage a direct product of the sin that triggered the divorce. Hence, this passage is entirely consistent with our view of Matthew 19.
Thus, Jesus’ point is that it’s sin to divorce in order to marry someone else, as you are to be entirely loyal to your spouse as long as you’re married. You may not fall in love with someone while married to someone else. If you do, you may not divorce in order to be with your love.
Christianity is about serving other people. Getting your way at the cost of harming others is not in the cards. Repentance means submission to God and to others. God doesn’t promise you heaven on earth — or even a soul mate. Heaven comes later.
There are many New Testament passages where spouses are urged to make sacrifices for the sake of the Kingdom (e.g., 1 Cor. 7:12-13; 1 Pet. 3:1), and one sacrifice is to love your spouse and not go looking for a better one. Of course, there are exceptions, but the exceptions aren’t about anything remotely selfish.
[1] Edwards, pp. 150-151.
I really have appreciated your articles on marriage and divorce. I was a preacher in the Church of Christ for 20 years and unfortunely went through more than one divorce after leaving the ministry. I caused the first divorce by being sexually unfaithful as well as emotionally. When I was married again, my wife decided after a year that she didn't want to be married anymore. No attempts on my part during a long period of time could convince her to go for counseling together or anything else. We finally filed for divorce. I am now married to a wonderful, spiritual Christian lady and we've been together for several years. I used to be concerned that since my second divorce wasn't "Scriptural," that this put me in a bad state even though I had fully repented and no longer want to ever break a marriage vow again! Many would think I'm living in adultery and should be single for the rest of my life. Most passage of Scripture on this subject I've come to some (I believe) healthy understandings. But the latter part of vs. 18 here has caused me some confusion. It sounds like it's saying that if a man divorces his wife to marry another woman that is adultery(which I agree with), but the woman who was put out, if she remarries after her husband has divorced her to marry another, is she sinning?
Lee,
Thanks for raising the question. The same issue arises in the Matthew 5 passage, which says much the same thing. As I wrote at /2008/09/20/mdr-matthew-5-p…,
As discussed there as well, the "adultery" is the marrying, not the sexual relations thereafter, as the Greek implies that "commits adultery" and "marries" are concurrent.
I should not be read as saying the second marriage is always sinful. Rather, I'm just saying that the marriage shouldn't happen while reconciliation is possible. Much the same thinking drives most divorce laws which prohibit a marriage for a time — typically 6 months — after a divorce. Not all marriages can (or should) be reconciled.
Maybe this was merely a censor against the pharisees who oversaw marital problems. One Scribe would see a man with an attractive woman come to him for guidance. Maybe he would divorce his own wife secretly(if he had one). Instead of helping, this teacher of the law attempts to cause this married couple to fight until irreconcilable. He would then woo this girls heart until she wants him instead. The pharisee would insist the husband divorce the girl(giving her a get). Then attempt to marry her secretly(so as not to be stigmatized). Thus, the Scribe commits adultery even if he wasn’t formally married because he deliberately sundered another matrimonial union to steal her heart away. Showing utter contempt to the sanctity of marriage.
In Luke 16:18b, the verb for “divorced” is in the passive perfect tense. But it’s also a participle. Should it be rendered as a past action with present repercussions or something that is presently complete with future results? In other words, is there a such thing as the future perfect?
RJ,
In the Greek, the verbs are indicative present active. The sense of time comes from context, and “marries” and “divorces” are both aorist participles, and hence simultaneous and point in time. Jesus’ is criticizing divorcing a spouse in order to marry another — and this is the adultery he charges them with.
Oh I agree. I meant the second part of the verse where he says “and he that marries a divorced woman commits adultery”. According to http://biblehub.com/lexicon/luke/16-18.htm, the Greek term for “divorced” here is a participle in the perfect tense passive voice. At least according to the Majority Text.